1 Clement is a letter written, probably toward the end of the first century A.D., from the church at Rome to the church at Corinth. The author is not named in the letter but for sake of convenience we will refer to him as Clement following the traditional attribution. Despite its length, the document contains only one brief reference to supernatural evil, at 1Clem 51.1. This text reads as follows:
The Greek term which Ehrman translates 'the Enemy' is
τοῦ ἀντικειμένου or, in its lexical form,
ὁ ἀντικείμενος. This is a substantivized participle of the verb
ἀντίκειμαι, 'to oppose', and a literal translation thus might be, 'the opposing one'. What grounds do we have for concluding that 'the opposing one' in this text refers to Satan (the devil)?
Firstly, it is well established in Christian literature before and contemporaneous with 1 Clement that Satan was regarded as 'the adversary'
par excellence (e.g. Luke 10:18-19; 1 Pet. 5:8; etc.). Hence, since 1Clem 51.1 does not explicitly identify 'the opposing one' it is only natural to conclude that Satan is the referent - especially since Clement implicates 'the opposing one' in inducing people to sin, which is one of Satan's main functions in the New Testament (Matt. 4:1-11; 1 Cor. 7:5; etc.)
Secondly, there is abundant evidence of the word
ἀντίκειμαι being used with reference to Satan in Jewish and Christian literature in antiquity. Most (but not all) of it probably dates from after 1 Clement was written, but still shows that there was a strong early Christian tradition of describing Satan with this terminology. In Zech. 3:1 LXX, the verb
שָׂטָן (the verbal equivalent of the Hebrew noun
śāṭān) is translated into Greek as
ἀντικεῖσθαι, the infinitive form of
ἀντίκειμαι. Although
haśśāṭān ('the adversary'/'the prosecutor',
ὁ διάβολος in the LXX) is not yet the Satan of Christian theology in this text, it undoubtedly played an influential role in the development of this concept in the early church. The tradition cited in Jude 9 indirectly depends on Zech. 3:1, while Justin Martyr cites Zech. 3:1 LXX on three occasions in his
Dialogue with Trypho (79.4; 116.3-8; 155.2). In the second of these passages he uses the participle
ἀντικείμενος twice to modify
διάβολος. This suggests that the use of this participle with reference to the devil depends on the occurrence of the verb in Zech. 3:1 LXX, which could also explain its usage in other early Christian texts, including 1Clem 51.1.
In the second-century A.D. translation of the Hebrew Bible into Greek by Theodotion,
שָּׂטָן in Job 1:6 is translated
ἀντικείμενος. Origen states in
Contra Celsum 6.44 that
ἀντικείμενος is the Greek translation of the Hebrew name
Σατάν or Σατανᾶς. This shows that the semantic equivalence between the Hebrew word
śāṭān and the Greek
ἀντικείμενος is sufficient to account for the use of the latter word for Satan, apart from any dependence on Zech. 3:1 LXX.
Within the New Testament, there is no clear use of
ἀντικείμενος for Satan. However, the word is used in 2 Thess. 2:4 for an eschatological Antichrist figure who is linked to Satan in the same passage (v. 9). Moreover, a significant number of scholars interpret this term with reference to Satan in 1 Tim. 5:14 (though many others do not). The extant Latin version of Pseudo-Philo's work
Liber Antiquitatum Biblicarum, generally dated to the first or early second century A.D., uses the word
anteciminus at 45.6 which scholars think has been transliterated from
ἀντικείμενος and almost certainly reflects
שָּׂטָן in the (lost) Hebrew original. Other uses of
ἀντικείμενος for Satan in second-century Christian texts include
Martyrdom of Polycarp 17.1 (to be discussed in an upcoming post), Ptolemy the Gnostic's
Letter to Flora 7.5, Clement of Alexandria's
Paedagogus 1.8 and
Stromata 2.5, 4.18 and 21.1, and in Eusebius' quotations from the Martyrium of Lyons and an anonymous opponent of Montanism (
Historia Ecclesiastica 5.1.5; 5.1.23; 5.1.42; 5.16.7). Clement of Alexandria's
Stromata 4.8 is actually a paraphrase of 1Clem 51.1, and shows that 'the opposing one' was understood as a reference to Satan in the earliest extant interpretation of this text.
Another possible parallel is in
Ascension of Isaiah 11.19, a Christian text generally dated to the late first century A.D. This text makes reference to 'the adversary' but survives only in an Ethiopic version, so there is no way of knowing whether the Greek original had
ὁ ἀντικείμενος.
All told, there is abundant evidence for the view that 1Clem 51.1 refers to Satan. Hence, it is unsurprising that this interpretation appears to enjoy unanimous support among modern scholars. I was unable to find a single published work which takes a different view.
While this is the only reference to supernatural evil within 1 Clement, there is a second passage which is of interest precisely because it does not mention the devil when we might expect it to. 1Clem 3.4 offers the following criticism of the disunity which is apparently taking place in the Corinthian congregation:
For this reason, righteousness and peace are far removed, since each has abandoned the reverential awe of God and become dim-sighted in faith, failing to proceed in the ordinances of his commandments and not living according to what is appropriate in Christ. Instead, each one walks according to the desires of his evil heart, which have aroused unrighteous and impious jealousy - through which also death entered the world.
The last part of this sentence, 'through which also death entered the world', is a quotation from the Jewish pseudepigraphic work
Wisdom of Solomon 2.24, which reads in the NRSV translation, "but through the devil’s envy death entered the world, and those who belong to his company experience it."
It is fairly unremarkable that Clement quotes the passage without mentioning the word
διάβολος (which the NRSV translates "devil"), since he only uses a short snippet to make his point about envy. However, the writer of 1 Clement continues, "For so it is written..." and proceeds to recount the story of Cain and Abel. This shows that the writer understands
Wisdom of Solomon 2.24 to be referring to the story of Cain and Abel. The same is true of Theophilus of Antioch, writing in the late second century A.D. However, while Clement makes no mention of the devil here (and does not use the word
διάβολος), Theophilus explains that Satan infiltrated Cain's heart, causing him to murder Abel (
Ad Autocylus 2.29). Have the two writers interpreted
διάβολος differently in their source? It is possible that they both interpreted the passage in the same way, but that Clement neglected to mention the devil's role (perhaps because his concern is more pastoral than theological here). However, it is also possible that Clement has implicitly understood
διάβολος in his source to refer to Cain himself. This second view commands much scholarly support. It is impossible to be certain, however, since Clement does not say how he has understood
διάβολος.
What if we are correct to infer that Clement has understood
διάβολος in
Wisdom of Solomon 2.24 to refer to Cain and not the devil? At least one scholar (Beyschlag) has suggested that it is a demythologizing move on Clement's part. However, Dochhorn cautions against such an assumption. After all, we have seen from 1Clem 51.1 that the devil does have a place in Clement's theology as an instigator of sin.
It is interesting that there is a trend in recent scholarship of interpreting
διάβολος in
Wisdom of Solomon 2.24 to refer to Cain (who is mentioned explicitly in 10.3) or to refer to a generic adversary (although some scholars still maintain the 'devil' interpretation). It is important to note that
διάβολος occurs in this text without the definite article. Hence, one possible explanation is simply that
Wisdom of Solomon 2.24 did not refer to the devil, and Clement interpreted it correctly. That is, there was no demythologization because there was nothing to demythologize! In that case the most we could say is that, unlike Theophilus, Clement refrained from
mythologizing this text. This, of course, would not imply that Clement did not believe in the devil (we have already seen that he did); only that he did not regard the anarthrous
διάβολος in
Wisdom of Solomon 2.24 as a reference to the devil.
In conclusion, the early Christian letter known as 1 Clement makes one mention of Satan in a way that stands in continuity with early Christian Satanology as known from the New Testament and other early Christian texts. However, the fact that Clement only mentions Satan once in this lengthy letter, and refrains from mentioning him in a context in which we might have expected him to do so, suggests that Satan plays only a minor role in his theology. Perhaps, as Knoch suggests, Satan has been disempowered in Clement's eschatological outlook.